The idea that numerous Mexican illegal immigrants possess ambitions of “re-conquering” Mexico from the U.S. to remedy the cessation that occurred in the aftermath of the Mexican-American war doesn’t even make sense, and here’s why.
Consider the case of the U.S. as being somewhat analogous to that of Mexico. The U.S. originated as a seceding region of a colonialist European empire, Great Britain. The modern Mexican republic originated as a seceding region of a colonialist European empire, Spain, though it developed slower and was preceded by a Mexican empire independent of Spain. The secessionists were of European descent in both cases, of primarily English (and other types of British) descent in the case of the U.S., and of primarily Spanish descent (the term is "
criollo”) in the case of Mexico. In both cases, there was an indigenous underclass that underwent wide-scale destruction and continued to undergo racial discrimination after the establishment of the U.S. and Mexico, both of which placed Europeans at the top of the racial hierarchy and Native Americans far beneath them. So we had three groups in each country relevant to this discussion: the European royalists, the seceding American settlers, and the Native Americans. We end up having figures like General Antonio Lopez de Santa Anna, eleven-time president of Mexico, being equivalent to the Founding Fathers in that they’re of European descent but of newly created American nationalities. The Native Americans, however, are obviously quite distinct in both cases.
That brings me to the point that the majority of the Mexican illegal immigrant population is Native American, and that racism and classism in Mexico has continued to this day to an even more blatant extent than in the U.S., with the Mexican political class dominated by a white male majority, contrary to the popular U.S. misconception that immigrants are representative of a homogenous racial population in that country. There is substantial discontent among the Native American immigrants to the U.S. with the Mexican political class for their pursuit of trade liberalization, which caused the original conditions of displacement that forced them to migrate in the first place. The most intense example of this is the Zapatista uprising in the southernmost Mexican state of Chiapas, which was orchestrated by Tzotzil Mayans.
Now, would we not see the absurdity of conflating the Native American population of the U.S. with the European settlers, with whom they were often in conflict? Why do we do this in the case of the modern Native American illegal immigrants, assuming that “they” are the descendants of those Mexican settlers? While many of them will be culturally Hispanic at this point because of detachment from indigenous culture, they’re obviously still part of some underclass if they migrate away from Mexico, and they’re certainly distinct from the white upper class. Is it not therefore absurd to believe that they have any desire to extend those conditions into the U.S. and empower the political class that often does not hide its contempt for them in the U.S.?