There's no response to this question begging nonsense.
Having accepted your premise that the US Constitution proceeds from the assumption of man's flawed nature, how does citing another example of government that procedes under the assumption of man's flawed nature, in any manner demonstrate that the assumption of man's flawed nature is a uniquely Christian principle?
You accuse without basis, and display obstinent ignorance while claiming I know nothing of God.
Every governement proceeds from the assumption of man's flawed nature--I am not wrong in this, unless you can point out the government that proceeds from an assumption of man's inherent perfection. But the very best part is that you have to demonstrate that EVERY government ever, except for that established by the US Constitution, proceeded from the assumption of man's inherent perfection, to demostrate the unique status of the US Constitution you're asserting. Good luck with that.
It's good to know that petitio principii is still the breakfast of champions amongs theocrats.